History of Present Illness: 18 year old female presents with a worsening neck mass over the last few weeks.
Three weeks weeks ago, she reports initially having fevers, aches, chills and severe sore throat.
One week ago, she was seen in the clinic for sore throat and neck swelling and had a Monospot test which was negative
Diagnosed with probable viral syndrome and was placed on a Medrol dose pack for the neck swelling.
After some initial improvement, the pain, swelling and redness worsened, prompting her visit to the ED
Review of systems: She denies any fever, chills. Other than above history, she did report a rash for 2-3days about 3 weeks ago. She didn’t notice any shortness of breath or cough until day of ED visit. She did recent dental work, no TB exposure
Past Medical History:
Seizure disorder – partial seizures, seizure free for last 2 years
Urinary tract infection 2 months ago with admission for IV/Abx
No Previous History of Mononucleosis
Lamictal 100mg BID
Social: No ETOH, No Smoking, College Freshman
Vital Signs: Temperature 97.7, pulse 54, Respiratory 18, Pox 88%, 105/68
Gen: A/O, nontoxic appearing
HEENT: No thrush, No dental
Neck: Significant fullness Left Neck with mild erythema, some fluctuance. Mild lymphadenopathy below mass in L. ant cervical chain.
Chest: L clear, HS1S2
Abdomen: No splenomegaly
WBC: 18.44 Segs 75, Lymphs 19
H/H: 10.6/31.9 Platelet 360
CT scan of the Face/Neck
What was/were the most likely risk factor(s) for the evolution of this process
The use of the steroid taper
Underlying viral syndrome per history
Her Lamictal led to an immunocompromised state
What studies are missing in the work-up (hint: look at vital signs)?
Why may she not have had a fever?
What is the likely diagnosis (Gram stain below) and the organism associated with it?
Gram stain of sample
Feel free to leave a comment of any or all of the answers.
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